All Answar Keys 2nd Gr Teacher RPSC

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All Answar Keys 2nd Gr Teacher RPSC

G.K. Answer Key

S.St. Answer Key

Science Answer Key

Hindi Answer Key

Maths Answer Key

English Answer Key

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RPSC Science 2nd Grade Answar Key/ Solved Paper
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राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक· सिंचाई - ·कुँओं से  

राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक· वर्षा ·के दिन - झालावाड़   

राजस्थान में न्यून वायु दाब ·का क्षेत्र - पश्चिम क्षेत्र

सौर ऊर्जा से रौशन प्रथम गाँव - नया गाँव, जयपुर

मिट्टी ·की क्षारीयता व लवणीयता ·का ·कारण - ·केशाकर्षण

मांगरोल क्यों प्रसिद्ध है - टेराकोटा खादी

त्रि·काल क्या है - पानी, अन्न, चारा

राजस्थान से सर्वाधिक· निर्यात - वस्त्र

अनामलाई ·की पहाडिय़ाँ कहाँ हैं - ईलाइची पहाडिय़ों में

मध्य·कालीन राजस्थान में सामाजिक· उत्थान ·के ·कार्य ·किसने ·किये - दादूदयाल

जनरल डायर ·को ·किसने मारा - उद्यम सिंह

राजस्थान में सर्वाधिक· विवाह - आखा तिज

एशियाई खेल कहाँ हुए - चीन

डेन्युब नदी कहाँ से जाती है - रोमानीया

बेसिक पे ·किसे कहते हैं - मूल वेतन

एशिया ·का सबसे बड़ा जिंक· संयंत्र - चंदेरिया

छापों ·के ·कारीगर राज. में कहाँ से आये - गुजरात

सर्वाधि· नमक· ·का उत्पादन कहाँ से होता है - सांभर

ब्लू पॉटरी ·का विकास ·किस·के ·काल में हुआ - सवाई राम सिंह

न्यूनतम लघु उद्योग ·कहाँ हैं - बाड़मेर

प्रिसीजन ग्लास फैक्ट्ररी - धौलपुर

मोरिया प्रथा ·का संबंध - विवाह से

ब्राह्मणों की प्रथा नहीं है - विधवा विवाह

भील जाति ·किस·की वंशज है - मुंडा जाति

शाहबाद व ·किशनगढ़ में सहरिया जनजाति ·का प्रतिशत - ९९.९० प्रतिशत

पूगल नस्ल है - भेड़

मेंहदी कहाँ ·कि प्रसिद्ध है- गिलूंड (राजसमंद)

कपास फसल है - उष्ण कटिबंध ·की

राजस्थान से सर्वाधिक· नमक· ·का निर्यात - उत्तरप्रदेश, हरियाणा, पंजाब

द्विनाम पद्धति ·का जनक· - लिनीयस

गलीचा उद्योग प्रसिद्ध है - जयपुर

कोफतगिरी हेतु प्रसिद्ध है - जयपुर, अलवर

धायमाताऐं होती हैं - गुर्जर जाति से

चीनी ·की पहली सहकारी मिल - ·केशोरायपाटन

सूती वस्त्र ·की पहली मिल - ब्यावर

खेतड़ी प्रसिद्ध है - तांबा

खेतड़ी की HMT - अमेरिका के सहयोग से स्थापित

ISRO- Indian Space Research Org.

ग्राम सेवक परीक्षा में प्रत्येक जिले का पेपर अलग अलग था अगर आपके जिले के प्रश्न इस में नहीं है तो नीचे दिए गए कमेन्ट बॉक्स में अपने जिले का प्रश्न टाइप कर के हमें भेज दे हम जल्दी ही उसका उत्तर भी वेबसाइट पर डाल  देंगे  

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R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2007 Political Science : Solved Paper

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2007

Political Science : Solved Paper

(Held on 23-12-2007)

1. When a Governor reserves a bill passed by the State Legislature ?
(A) He may be impeached
(B) He sends it to the President
(C) He may help the bill pending indefinitely
(D) He may give assent to the bill later
2. Match the following features of Indian Constitution and their sources—
List-I
(a) Bill of Right and Judicial Review.
(b) Parliamentary System of Democracy.
(c) Directive Principles.
(d) Residuary Powers with Centre.
List-II
1. England
2. Ireland
3. U.S.A.
4. Canada
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
3. A uniform civil code has been recommended in the Directive Principles to ensure—
(A) Economic equality
(B) National security
(C) National integration
(D) Support for weaker sections of society
4. Indian Institute of Public Administration is situated at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Madras
(C) Calcutta
(D) Bombay
5. Which of the following Newspaper is not associated with Gandhiji ?
(A) The Statesman
(B) Harijan
(C) Young India
(D) Indian Opinion
6. The Bureaucratic model set-up in India by the British Government are based on the theory given by—
(A) Weber
(B) Macaulay
(C) Michels
(D) Macpherson
7. Which Article of Indian Constitution guarantees constitutional protection to our civil servants ?
(A) 311
(B) 312
(C) 313
(D) 315
8. Which Constitutional Amendment is related to Panchayati Raj ?
(A) 52nd
(B) 62nd
(C) 72nd
(D) 73rd
9. In which year, the National Commission for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe was created ?
(A) 1989
(B) 1990
(C) 1991
(D) 1996
10. Who was the author of ‘Arthasastra’ ?
(A) Kautilya
(B) Adam Smith
(C) Patanjali
(D) Malthus
11. Who burnt Hobbs’ book ‘Leviathan’ ?
(A) Clarenden
(B) Palmastene
(C) Duguit
(D) Crawe
12. In India the power of Judicial review is enjoyed by the—
(A) High Court only
(B) Supreme Court only
(C) Supreme Court and High Court only
(D) Parliament
13. What are the essential elements of the State ?
(A) Population, Territory, Constitution, Power
(B) Population, Territory, Government, Sovereignty
(C) Population, Territory, Political Party, Sovereignty
(D) Population, Power, Authority, Sovereignty
14. Which of the following Theories of Origin of State is more appropriate and reliable as it is based on scientific base ?
(A) Divine Origin of State
(B) Force Theory
(C) Evolutionary Theory
(D) Social Contract Theory
15. Marxism believes that the State is—
(A) social welfare organization
(B) a necessary evil
(C) an instrument of exploitation
(D) an essentially good
16. In the Indian Constitution the word secularism means—
(A) State has a religion of its own
(B) State has nothing to do with religion
(C) State has irreligious
(D) State tolerates religion without professing any particular religion
17. Who presides over the Joint Session of the two Houses of the Parliament ?
(A) President of India
(B) Speaker of Lok-Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Leader of Ruling Party
18. The minimum age for becoming President of India is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 18 years
19. Who was the Chairman of the “Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly” ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) J. L. Nehru
(D) B. N. Rao
20. Through which Amendment was the word ‘Socialism’ added to the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 43rd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 45th Amendment
21. Which of the following technique is not adopted by the Pressure Groups ?
(A) Gherao
(B) Lobbying
(C) Propaganda
(D) Directly Contesting Election
22. The United Nations is financed by—
(A) The contribution from the Member-States
(B) Switzerland
(C) Russia
(D) America
23. Article 21 deals with which Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion
24. Which one of the following welfare ideals is not found in the list of Directive Principles ?
(A) Compulsory Primary Education
(B) Equal Pay for equal work
(C) Promoting Health Services
(D) Compulsory Employment
25. The mediator in Aceh Peace Accord in 2005 was—
(A) Finland
(B) Philippines
(C) Laos
(D) Singapore
26. 13th SAARC Summit was organized in—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Nepal
27. The Corruption Treaty of U.N.O. is effected from—
(A) October 2005
(B) November 2005
(C) December 2005
(D) January 2005
28. Which Amendment was passed for Private Reservation Bill on December 2005 ?
(A) 102
(B) 103
(C) 104
(D) 105
29. The 6th Schedule of Constitution is not applied on the State—
(A) Assam
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Tripura
(D) Manipur
30. The number of Judges in International Court of Justice are—
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 14
31. Presently how many members are in U.N.O. ?
(A) 189
(B) 191
(C) 185
(D) 193
32. Presently how many members are in ‘NATO’ ?
(A) 26
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 12
33. Which Five Year Plan’s main aim was ‘Removal of Poverty’ ?
(A) 4th Five Year Plan
(B) 5th Five Year Plan
(C) 6th Five Year Plan
(D) 7th Five Year Plan
34. ‘Politics is struggle for power’ is said by—
(A) Marganthau
(B) Kwisy Right
(C) Sprout
(D) Thomson
35. In India the work of Budget forming is performed by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Service Committee
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission
36. Which one of the following Commissions was constituted to examine the Centre-State relations ?
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Shah Commission
(C) Bachhavat Commission
(D) Jain Commission
37. The first State where the Panchayati Raj System was implemented ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh
38. Who was U.N. Secretary-General in 2006 ?
(A) Trygve Lie
(B) Kofi Annan
(C) V. Thant
(D) Javier Perez
39. Why did Gandhiji abruptly stop the Non-cooperation Movement of 1922 ?
(A) For the harsh attitude of British
(B) Because of pact between Congress and British
(C) Because of violence broke at Chauri-Chaura
(D) Because of unanimous decision of Congress
40. Khilafat Movement subsided because of—
(A) The concession given to the Muslim by the British
(B) The accession of Kamal Pasha to the throne of Turkey
(C) The understanding reached between the Congress and the Muslim League
(D) None of the above
41. The slogan ‘Swaraj is my Birth Right’ was given by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Lokmanya Tilak
(D) Bipin Chandra Pal
42. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was given by—
(A) A.V. Dicey
(B) Laski
(C) Austin
(D) Maciver
43. Which one of the following is not a fundamental Right ?
(A) Right of Life
(B) Right to Liberty
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right to Freedom of Expression
44. The name of revolutionary leader, who killed General O’Dyer, responsible for Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy was—
(A) Madan Lal Dhingra
(B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Udham Singh
45. The centre-point of International Relations is—
(A) Struggle
(B) Power
(C) National Interest
(D) None of the above
46. Indian system is—
(A) Federal
(B) Quasi-federal
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal with unitary bias
47. India began NAM in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1954
(C) 1973
(D) 1978
48. Sino-Indian War occurred in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1948
(D) 1947
49. The major irritant in Indo-Pak relations is—
(A) Kashmir Issue
(B) Sir Creek Line
(C) Division of River Water
(D) Issue of Disarmament
50. The Indo-US Nuclear Agreement is related to—
(A) Civil Nuclear Cooperation
(B) Military and Civil Nuclear Cooperation
(C) Capping of Indian Nuclear Programme
(D) None of the above
51. ‘Panchayat Raj’ Amendment Act is known as—
(A) 73rd Amendment
(B) 74th Amendment
(C) 75th Amendment
(D) 76th Amendment
52. Who is known as a ‘Prophet of empty liberty’ ?
(A) Bentham
(B) Mill
(C) Laski
(D) Maciver
53. Which is not a key feature of State ?
(A) State is sovereign
(B) The State is an exercise in legislation
(C) The State is an instrument of domination
(D) The State is not a territorial association
54. “The State is both the Child and Parent of Law.” Whose statement is this ?
(A) Maciver
(B) Laski
(C) Coker
(D) Holland
55. Who made the statement “State is prior to individual” ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Cicero
(D) Augustine
56. Who among the following is the first modern Thinker ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Acquinas
(D) Machiavelli
57. The most powerful advocate of Absolute Sovereignty was—
(A) Hobbes
(B) Rousseau
(C) Bentham
(D) Mill
58. Who said Politics as the “authoritative allocation of values” ?
(A) Easton
(B) Samuel Johnson
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Lord Acton
59. Who said “Politics is both Science and Art” ?
(A) Laswell
(B) Kaplan
(C) Michel Curtis
(D) Tritschke
60. Who said “If liberty and law do not quarrel, liberty may quarrel with itself” ?
(A) Laski
(B) Maciver
(C) Barker
(D) Maxey
61. In the view of Green, the three obstacles to freedom are—
(A) Religion, Ignorance and Poverty
(B) Family, Government and Religion
(C) Ignorance, Drunkenness and Poverty
(D) None of these
62. Who among the following regarded as Medieaval Aristotle ?
(A) St. Augustine
(B) St. Thomas Acquinas
(C) Marsiglio of Paduc
(D) John Salisbury
63. Which among the following is not a natural right according to Locke ?
(A) Life
(B) Liberty
(C) Property
(D) Equality
64. Who said that imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism ?
(A) Lenin
(B) Stalin
(C) Mao
(D) Marx
65. The term Socialism was first used by—
(A) Marx
(B) Robert Owen
(C) Lenin
(D) Mao
66. Who wrote the book “Local and Regional Government” ?
(A) G.D.H. Cole
(B) Carl Friedrich
(C) Maciver
(D) Gandhi
67. Greek Philosopher gave supreme importance to—
(A) Individual
(B) State
(C) Community
(D) King
68. An Estimate Committee is—
(A) Permanent
(B) Temporary
(C) Both
(D) None of these
69. Who is considered as the Founder of Welfare State on the moral basis ?
(A) Kant
(B) Bosanquet
(C) Green
(D) Rousseau
70. Which Political Scientist gave a new dimension to the concept of Justice, Liberalism and Equality ?
(A) John Rawls
(B) Arthur Bentley
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Hans Morgenthau
71. Who wrote Parliament ?
(A) Jennings
(B) Strong
(C) Jenks
(D) Corry
72. Who said that “State is Particular portion of mankind viewed as an organised” ?
(A) Bluntschelli
(B) Hegel
(C) Burgess
(D) Leacock
73. The most clear exposition of the ‘rule of law’ was provided by—
(A) George Washington
(B) Jean Bodin
(C) Ivar Jennings
(D) A. V. Dicey
74. Who said Sovereignty was the fullness of State ?
(A) The Greeks
(B) The English
(C) The Romans
(D) The Indians
75. The chief proponent of the Theory of Natural Right are—
(A) John Locke and Thomas Paine
(B) Lasswell and Kaplan
(C) Hegel and Kant
(D) Durkheim and Weber
76. Who is the author of ‘Two Concept of Liberty’ ?
(A) Mill
(B) Isciah Berlin
(C) Laski
(D) Macpherson
77. “Pain and Pressure and the two sovereign matter”, is said by—
(A) Hobbes
(B) Hegel
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Bentham
78. Who defined democracy as “a Government in which everyone has a share” ?
(A) Bryce
(B) Seeley
(C) Laski
(D) Lincoln
79. Who wrote the book “Social Principles and the Democratic State” ?
(A) Benn and Peters
(B) C.E.M. Joad
(C) Barker
(D) Hocking
80. Who propagated “The greatest happiness to the greatest number” ?
(A) Marxists
(B) Utilitarians
(C) Liberals
(D) Pluralists
81. According to Kautilya, ‘Trivarg’ includes
(A) Arth-Kama-Dharma
(B) Arth-Kama-Moksha
(C) Dharma-Artha-Moksha
(D) Arth-Dharma-Moksha
82. Who stated that pressure group have acquired the name of the ‘Third House’ ?
(A) Laski
(B) Finer
(C) Bryce
(D) Dicey
83. Which Article of the Constitution defines the duties of Chief Minister ?
(A) Article 163
(B) Article 164
(C) Article 166
(D) Article 167
84. Regarding the re-election of the Vice-President our—
(A) Constitution prescribes reelection only once
(B) Constitution places a clear ban
(C) Constitution is absolutely silent
(D) Constitution prescribes reelection for a maximum period of two terms
85. The philosophical basis of negative liberalism is—
(A) Individualism
(B) Capitalism
(C) Communism
(D) None of the above
86. Which one of the following are the devices of democracy which are commonly practised in modern times ?
1. Widening of the Electorate.
2. Frequent Election.
3. Local Self Government.
4. Responsibility of the Government to the majority party.
Select correct answers from the following—
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
87. Who said “A strong middle-class is the backbone of democracy” ?
(A) Aristotle
(B) Garner
(C) Plato
(D) H. G. Wells
88. Indian Administration is influenced by which of the following factors ?
(A) Federalism
(B) Parliamentary Democracy
(C) Planning
(D) All of the above
89. Treaty of Versailles is related to—
(A) Korean Crisis
(B) First World War
(C) Afghanistan Crisis
(D) Second World War
90. Who heads the Meeting of Committee of Secretaries ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Cabinet Secretary
(C) Home Secretary
(D) Defence Secretary
91. NATO was set up in the year—
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1951
(D) 1952
92. At which place Churchill give his speech regarding Cold War ?
(A) London
(B) Fulton
(C) Paris
(D) Berlin
93. Who observed that universal adult franchise is not really universal ?
(A) G. D. H. Cole
(B) G. B. Shaw
(C) G. W. F. Hegel
(D) Gilchrist
94. Input-ouput model is chiefly attributed to—
(A) Peter Merkl
(B) Roburt Dahl
(C) David Easton
(D) David Apter
95. In which part of the Constitution proclaims India to be a welfare State ?
(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part IX
(D) Part VI
96. Which of the following included in the State list in the Constitution of India ?
1. Police
2. Law and order
3. Prisons
4. Criminal Procedure Code
Choose correct answers from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
97. Which of the following are not matched properly ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi–Non-cooperation Movement
(B) Vinoba Bhave–Bhoodan
(C) M. N. Roy–Partyless Democracy
(D) J. L. Nehru–Democratic Socialism
98. National Development Council was established in—
(A) August 1951
(B) August 1947
(C) August 1952
(D) August 1950
99. Which U.S. Resolution proposed the ‘STAR-WARS’ programme ?
(A) Nixon
(B) Kennedy
(C) Reagan
(D) Bush
100. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in—
(A) Part I of the Constitution
(B) Part III of the Constitution
(C) Part IV of the Constitution
(D) None of the above

Answers with Hints

1. (B) According to Article 200 of the Constitution, the Governor may reserve any bill passed by state legislature for the consideration of the President.
2. (D)
3. (C) Uniform civil code means common family and marriage laws for all classes of citizens including minorities. At present, the uniform civil code is not applicable in case of Muslims. The implementation of the uniform civil code for all sections of people will promote national integration.
4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (B)
7. (A) As per the provisions of Article 311 of the Constitution, no member of state or Union Civil Service shall be removed from his post or reduced in rank by an authority below than the appointing authority and without
conducting a proper inquiry in which such member is given opportunity to represent himself.
8. (D) The 73rd Constitution Amendment bill was passed by Lok Sabha on December 22, 1992 and by Rajya Sabha on December 23, 1992. This Amendment Act became effective on April 24, 1993.
9. (B) Under Article 338 of the Constitution, the National Commission of SC/ST was established vide 65th Constitution Amendment Act, 1990.
10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (C) According to Karl Marx, the State is a class institution, which becomes a tool in the hands of capitalists for the exploitation of proletariat or working class.
16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B)
20. (A) The three words–‘socialist’, ‘secular’ and ‘integrity’ were added in the preamble of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
21. (D) The basic difference between the pressure groups and political parties is that the pressure groups do not contest elections to capture political power. Pressure groups put pressure on the government in order to realize their objectives.
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (A) The 13th SAARC Summit was held on November 12 and 13, 2005 at Dhaka, Bangladesh.
27. (C) 28. (C)
29. (D) The 6th Schedule of the Constitution makes provision for the administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
30. (A)
31. (B) At present, there are 192 members in the United Nations.
32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C)
36. (A) The Sarkaria Commission, named after justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria, was set up in 1983 to examine the Centre-State relations. The Commission was setup by the Union Government and submitted its report in 1988.
37. (C) The Panchayati Raj System was launched on October 2, 1959 at Nagore (Rajasthan) by the Prime Minister, Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.
38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (C) 42. (A)
43. (C) The Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978 and it was made as a legal right.
44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D)
47. (A) The First Non-Aligned Summit was held in 1961 at Belgrade, the capital of Yogoslavia, in which 25 member countries participated.
48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (A)
52. (B) Barker has termed Mill as the prophet of empty liberty.
53. (D) Definite territory is the essential element of State.
54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (A)
59. (C) 60. (D) 61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (D)
64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A)
67. (C) The Greek Philosophers did not make distinction between the state and society. For them the State is the community itself.
68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (A) 72. (C)
73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (A) 76. (B) 77. (D)
78. (B) 79. (A)
80. (B) The doctrine of utilitarianism of was propounded by J. Bentham.
81. (A)
82. (B) Due to important role of pressure groups in the USA politics, they are termed as the third Chamber of Congress. (the US Legislature)
83. (D) According to Article 167, it is the duty of Chief Minister to inform the Governor about the decisions of the Cabinet and the legislature proposals of the Government.
84. (C) 85. (A)
86. (C) The Government is equally responsible to both majority party and other parties.
87. (D) 88. (D)
89. (B) The treaty of Versailles was signed in 1919 after the end of First World War (1914-1918). The treaty also provided for the establishment of league of Nations.
90. (B) 91. (B)
92. (B) The speech given by Mr. Churchill at Fulton on March 5, 1946 is termed as the beginning of cold war in world politics.
93. (A) 94. (C)
95. (B) The part IV of the Constitution provides for the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) the idea of Welfare State is inherent in these Directive Principles.
96. (A) The criminal procedure code finds mention in the concurrent list given in the 7th schedule of the Constitution.
97. (C) The idea of party-less democracy was given by Jai Prakash Narayan. The main idea of M. N. Roy is the idea of New-Humanism.
98. (C) 99. (C)
100. (C) The Fundamental Duties of the citizens are mentioned in part IV-A of the Constitution.

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R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008 Geography : Solved Paper

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008

(Held on 7-1-2009)Geography : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following statements about the shape of the Earth is correct ?
(A) It is oblate spheroid
(B) It bulges slightly at the poles
(C) It is a little flattened at the Equator
(D) It is exactly spherical in shape without any bulge at any place
2. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of landforms developed under fluvial cycle of erosion ?
(A) Gorge, flood plain, piedmont plain, delta
(B) Gorge, piedmont plain, flood plain, delta
(C) Gorge, piedmont plain, delta, flood plain
(D) Piedmont plain, gorge, flood plain, delta
3. Spring equinox falls on—
(A) March 21
(B) June 21
(C) September 23
(D) December 22
4. Relative humidity refers to—
(A) Absolute amount of water vapour in the atmosphere
(B) The amount of hygroscopic nuclei in the atmosphere
(C) Saturated vapour pressure
(D) Rate of actual amount of water vapour in the air to the amount it could hold at that temperature
5. Solar energy which reaches the earth surface is called—
(A) Radiated energy
(B) Radiant
(C) Sunlight
(D) Conduction
6. A broad channel where the waters of a river and a sea mingle is called—
(A) a delta
(B) an estuary
(C) a harbour
(D) a strait
7. Assertion (A) : In orographic nature of rainfall, the windward slope of a mountain range gets more rainfall than the lea ward slope.
Reason (R) : The warm and humid air that descends down the slope get warmed up and dry.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
8. During which period did the domestication of plants and animals take place ?
(A) Paleolithic period
(B) Mesolithic period
(C) Neolithic period
(D) Dark age
9. What is the main occupation of Eskimos ?
(A) Summer cultivation
(B) Winter woodwork
(C) Fishing and Hunting
(D) Handicrafts
10. The process of gradual spread over space of people or ideas from the centre of origin is known as—
(A) Distribution
(B) Diffusion
(C) Innovation
(D) Decentralization
11. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Masai — Matagonia
(B) Kirghiz — Kazakhstan
(C) Melanesians — Malaysia
(D) Pygmies — Tanzania
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Tribe)
(a) Jarwa
(b) Todas
(c) Angami
(d) Saura
List-II (Occupation)
1. Shifting cultivation
2. Terraced cultivation
3. Pastoral
4. Food gathering
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
13. Which one of the following agricultural pattern is not practiced in Western Europe ?
(A) Dairy farming
(B) Mixed farming
(C) Market gardening
(D) Intensive subsistence farming
14. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Lignite and low grade bituminous coal were formed during the Quaternary period.
2. Dolomite is used as refractory material and flux in iron and steel industry.
3. Chhota Nagpur Plateau is the most extensive, rich and diversified mineral belt.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
15. Assertion (A) : All biotic resources are renewable.
Reason (R) : Biotic resources can reproduce and regenerate their population as long as environmental conditions remain favourable.
Of these statements—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
16. Which of the folllowing pairs are correctly matched ?

Industrial Region	Major Industrial Centres
1. Ukraine	Krivoy Rog
2. Kuzbas	Novosibirsk
3. Central Asia	Karaganda
4. Volga	Moscow

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
17. The extensive coffee plantation in Brazil is called—
(A) Fazendas
(B) Trasil
(C) Corrals
(D) Estancias
18. Myanmar is industrially backward because of—
(A) Easy livelihood from agriculture
(B) Uneven land surface
(C) Limited local market
(D) Lack of iron ore and coal
19. If the map drawn to a scale of 1 cm to 30 km is to be enlarged three times, then representative fraction of the enlarged map will be—
(A) 1 : 1,000,000
(B) 1 : 3,000,000
(C) 1 : 6,000,000
(D) 1 : 9,000,000
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Instruments)
(a) Planimeter
(b) Pantograph
(c) Parallex bar
(d) Clinometer
List-II (Purpose)
1. Measures angles and slopes on ground
2. Calculation of areas on maps
3. Enlargement and reduction of maps
4. Measures the elevation from the photographs
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
21. The contours merge and run as a single line for a short distance in the case of a—
(A) Cliff
(B) Knobe
(C) Gorge
(D) Re-entrant
22. What are Cadastral maps used for ?
(A) To show the boundaries of fields and buildings
(B) To show urban areas
(C) To demarcate wasteland
(D) To demarcate land use pattern
23. Ergograph relates to—
(A) Relative humidity and rainfall
(B) Temperature and rainfall
(C) Climate and growing season of crops
(D) Rainfall and winds
24. A line on a map joining points in the oceans that have equal salinity is called—
(A) Isobath
(B) Isocline
(C) Isohaline
(D) Isogonic
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Mountains)
(a) Andes
(b) Appalacian
(c) Vesuvius
(d) Catskill
List-II (Type)
1. Old folded
2. New folded
3. Residual
4. Volcanic
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
26. Conventional storms in the Atlantics are known as—
(A) Hurricanes
(B) Typhoons
(C) Cyclones
(D) Tornadoes
27. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Podzol soils are poor in bases.
Reason (R) : They develop in tropical areas.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
28. The largest number and widest variety of plants and animals would be found in—
(A) Tropical grasslands
(B) Tropical forests
(C) Temperate forests
(D) Temperate grasslands
29. A natural region has the similarity of—
(A) climate and natural vegetation
(B) climate and occupation
(C) soil and drainage
(D) economic base and natural vegetation
30. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The population of the world has experienced an unprecedented growth during the 20th Century.
Reason (R) : Rapid advances in medical technology reduced death rate of population very significantly during the 20th
Century.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
31. Which one of the following is the most significant ecological determinant of population distribution in the world ?
(A) Physical features
(B) Mortality rate
(C) Land fertility
(D) Climate
32. Population growth in most of the developing countries of Asia is determined by—
(A) Birth rate and migration
(B) Migration and death rate
(C) Birth rate, death rate and migration
(D) Birth rate and death rate
33. The people of which country are known as Magyars ?
(A) Hungary
(B) Slovakia
(C) Austria
(D) Romania
34. Non-commercial pastoral nomadism is a way of life in the—
(A) Velds of South Africa
(B) Steppes of Mangolia
(C) Prairies of Canada
(D) Australian downs
35. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : When British Rule ended in India, many Anglo-Indians migrated to Australia.
Reason (R) : Some migrations are caused by religious attraction.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
36. Hunting and fishing is the main occupation of the people living in—
(A) Equatorial regions
(B) Polar regions
(C) Temperate grasslands
(D) Semi-desertic regions
37. There are rich fishing grounds off the coast of Peru and Chile for the reason of—
(A) Shallow continent shelf
(B) Convergence of cold and warm currents
(C) Upwelling of water from deeper layers
(D) Flow of warm ocean currents
38. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The boundary marking the termination of tree growth is known as timber line.
Reason (R) : Its location is determined by the amount of moisture, exposure, evaporation and depth of snow.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
39. The breed of sheep which produces the best quality wool is—
(A) Kutchi
(B) Merino
(C) Chokla
(D) Magra
40. Agriculture involving both crops and livestock is called—
(A) Intensive farming
(B) Extensive farming
(C) Mixed farming
(D) Double farming
41. Laterization process forms—
(A) A layer rich in minerals
(B) A layer rich in iron contents
(C) A layer rich in living organisms
(D) A layer rich in calcium
42. Which one of the following countries leads in export of condensed milk ?
(A) India
(B) Belgium
(C) Italy
(D) Netherlands
43. Which one of the following is not true about Singapore, the smallest country in Southeast Asia ?
(A) Has no natural resources
(B) Has the highest per capita income in whole of Southeast Asia
(C) Has non-strategic location
(D) Has well-educated population
44. Which one of the following countries in Southwest Asia has the largest well-irrigated farmland ?
(A) Lebanon
(B) Syria
(C) Iraq
(D) Jordan
45. Which one of the following regions is called as ‘rust belt’ of Japan ?
(A) Northern Honshu
(B) Southern Honshu
(C) Shikoku Islands
(D) Kyushu Islands
46. Which one of the following countries in East Asia adopted ‘Great Leap Forward’ policy for its rapid socio-economic transformation ?
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) Taiwan
(D) China
47. Which one of the following statements is not true about U.S.A. ?
(A) Is the largest market economy in the world
(B) Has a federal system of governance
(C) Is a highly urbanised and metropolized country
(D) Rural areas in Southern America are highly rich
48. Two Russian terms which entered the English language during Mikhail Gorbachev’s restructuring of the Soviet Union in the late 1980s were—
(A) Bolshevik and Menskevik
(B) Perestroika and Zaibatsu
(C) Novgoroad and Glasnost
(D) Perestroika and Glasnost
49. Russia’s main trading partner(s) is/are—
(A) Other CIS countries
(B) China
(C) Western Europe
(D) Japan
50. The Mount Everest falls along the natural boundary between—
(A) India and Nepal
(B) India and China
(C) Nepal and China
(D) Pakistan and China
51. The correct monsoon sequence (Season/Climatic conditions) is—
(A) Summer/Wet; Winter/Dry
(B) Summer/Dry; Winter/Wet
(C) Summer/Cold; Winter/Warm
(D) Summer/Mild; Winter/Wet
52. Which one of the following Indian States has the longest coastline ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh
53. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with—
1. Excessive rainfall
2. Deforestation
3. Excessive Cultivation
4. Overgrazing
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 2 and 4 are correct
54. Which one of the following types of forest grows in the shaded portion of the given rough outline map of India ?
(A) Mixed deciduous
(B) Tropical Savannah
(C) Semi-arid Scrub lands
(D) Mangrove forests
55. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Offshore fishing in Malabar coast is more developed than that in the Coromandel coast.
Reason (R) : Malabar coast has better facilities to export sea fish to African countries.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
56. The group of States having the forest cover of more than 75 per cent to the total geographical area is—
(A) Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland
(B) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland
(D) Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland
57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Cattle Breed)
(a) Gir
(b) Alambadi
(c) Dangi
(d) Deoni
List-II (State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Maharashtra
3. Gujarat
4. Andhra Pradesh
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 1 2 4
58. Which one of the following States has the highest livestock density in the country ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
59. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Indian agriculture is no longer the gamble of the monsoons.
Reason (R) : There is recent expansion of dry land farming in India.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
60. Which one of the following is associated with Indian Agriculture ?
(A) I.C.A.R.
(B) I.C.C.R.
(C) I.C.M.R.
(D) I.C.W.A.
61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Name of Crop)
(a) Rice
(b) Jowar
(c) Jute
(d) Coffee
List-II (State Growing)
1. Maharashtra
2. Orissa
3. Karnataka
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3
62. Which of the following dams has generation of power more than irrigation as its main aim ?
(A) Gandhi Sagar
(B) Hirakud
(C) Periyar
(D) Tunghabhadra
63. Consider the following—
1. Hematite
2. Magnetite
3. Limonite
4. Siderite
Which of the above are iron ore ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
64. Which Government agency is responsible for mapping and exploration of minerals in India ?
(A) Survey of India
(B) Geological Survey of India
(C) Minerals Development Corporation
(D) Indian School of Mines
65. Which one of the following is not a source of geothermal energy ?
(A) Hot Geyser
(B) Hot Spring
(C) Coal
(D) Volcano
66. Malvika Steel Plant, the first fully integrated steel plant in North, India, was set up in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab
67. Which of the following places is not associated with fertilizers ?
(A) Panipat
(B) Alwaye
(C) Namrup
(D) Ranchi
68. The New Industrial Policy was introduced in India in the year—
(A) 1987
(B) 1991
(C) 1993
(D) 1998
69. During which Census decade, sex-ratio in India registered the sharpest decline ?
(A) 1911-12
(B) 1921-31
(C) 1951-61
(D) 1961-71
70. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of population of the four metropolis as per 2001 Census ?
(A) Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai
(B) Kolkata, Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai
(C) Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi
(D) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai
71. What is the most favoured location of settlements in the mountainous regions ?
(A) Valley bottoms
(B) Ridge tops
(C) Valley side slopes
(D) Hill top
72. Largest buyers of goods exported from India is—
(A) Asia and Oceania region
(B) North America
(C) Latin America
(D) Western European region
73. The following countries are the major trading partners of India. Using codes given below their names, put these countries in sequential order of their share in total trade of India—
1. U.S.A.
2. China
3. Hong Kong
4. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Codes :
(A) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(B) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(C) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
74. Which one of the following public sector agencies in India is not associated with promotion of international trade ?
(A) State Trading Corporation (STC)
(B) Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC)
(C) Projects and Equipment Corporation of India (PEC)
(D) Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL)
75. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The Rajasthan desert is covered with shifting sand dunes.
Reason (R) : For want of rain and surface flowing of water, the work of wind is felt everywhere.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Summit)
(a) Dodabetta
(b) Nanda Devi
(c) Amarkantak
(d) Guru Sikhar
List-II (Mountain Range)
1. Nilgiri Hills
2. Himalaya Mountains
3. Aravali Range
4. Maikal Range
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 1 2 3
77. The climate around Bikaner can be described as—
(A) Mediterranean type
(B) Semi-arid steppe
(C) Hot desert
(D) Tropical monsoon
78. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the soils found in Western Rajasthan ?
(A) Contain sand interrupted by low rocky projections
(B) Contain a lot of soluble salts in the top layer
(C) Are the least leached soils and lack in humus also
(D) Are poor in phosphate but rich in nitrogen
79. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the vegetation found in Rajasthan ?
(A) Height of trees and density of plant cover is low
(B) Xerophytic plants are common
(C) The nature of vegetation does not change with variations of habitat
(D) Available forests are a good source of fuel wood and minor forest products
80. Which one of the following statements is not true about Western Arid region of Rajasthan ?
(A) This is the largest area size region in the State
(B) Bajra is the most prominent crop of the region
(C) Rural settlements are highly disperse and small in size
(D) Rainfall goes on increasing as one moves from east to west direction in the region
81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Livestock Breed)
(a) Rathi
(b) Kankrej
(c) Mallani
(d) Gir
List-II (District)
1. Nagaur
2. Jaisalmer
3. Sirohi
4. Ajmer
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I (Mining Area)
(a) Lunkaransaur
(b) Zawar Mines
(c) Deogarh
(d) Champa-gudha
List-II (Mineral Wealth)
1. Berryllium
2. Gypsum
3. Lead and Zinc
4. Mica
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
83. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) According to 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest population size districts in Rajasthan State are Jaipur and Jaisalmer, respectively
(B) At 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest area size districts in Rajasthan State were Jaisalmer and Dholpur, respectively
(C) Five new districts were created in Rajasthan between 1991 and 2001 Census decades
(D) According to 2001 Census, the highest and the lowest literacy districts in Rajasthan State were Jaipur and Dungarpur, respectively
84. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of decadal growth of population in the four districts of Rajasthan State during 1991-2001 ?
(A) Jaipur, Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer
(B) Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jaipur, Bikaner
(C) Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur
(D) Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur, Jaisalmer
85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I (Lake)
(a) Nakki Talab
(b) Sambhar
(c) Pichola
(d) Gadsisar
List-II (District)
1. Jaisalmer
2. Udaipur
3. Sirohi
4. Jaipur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
86. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Rajasthan is mainly a region of interior drainage.
Reason (R) : It is mainly a structural basin surrounded by hill ranges.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
87. Which one of the following statements is not correct about River Luni ?
(A) The Luni is a river of Western Rajasthan
(B) It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range in Ajmer District
(C) It is also known as Lavanavari river
(D) The Luni and its tributaries drain the eastern slopes of the Aravali range
88. The Rajasthan Canal (Indira Gandhi Canal) draws its water from the river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Yamuna
(C) Chambal
(D) Sutlej and Beas
89. Chambal is the joint project of—
(A) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
90. Which one of the following problems is not encountered in Indira Gandhi Canal command area ?
(A) Increase in soil salinity
(B) Progressive waterlogging
(C) Aeolian silting of canal
(D) Decline in water supply
91. What are Didwana and Pachpadra famous for ?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead and Zinc
(C) Salt
(D) Gypsum
92. In List-I industrial sectors has been listed, while in List-II are listed the location of industrial complexes. Match the two lists using the correct code, given ahead—
List-I (Industrial Sector)
(a) Gems and Jewellery
(b) Hosiery
(c) Ceramics
(d) Textiles
List-II (Location of Industrial Complex)
1. Pali
2. Khara (Bikaner)
3. Bhiwadi
4. Jaipur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
93. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of irrigated area in percentage under the four crops grown in Rajasthan State ?
(A) Wheat, Gram, Oilseeds, Cotton
(B) Wheat, Cotton, Gram, Oilseeds
(C) Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram, Cotton
(D) Cotton, Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram
94. Rajasthan, which is one of the five top ranking States in wind power potentials, has a number of very good wind power sites in the State. Match the wind power sites with districts of their location, using the correct code.
List-I (Wind power site)
(a) Devgarh
(b) Harhnath
(c) Khodal
(d) Mohangarh
List-II (District of Location)
1. Sikar
2. Barmer
3. Jaisalmer
4. Chittorgarh
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
95. National Highway No. 15 linking Punjab with Gujarat State passes through the territory of a number of districts in Rajasthan State. The number of such districts in the State is—
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Four
(D) Seven
96. Thar link express train running between Jodhpur and Munabao railway stations covers nearly a distance of—
(A) 150 km
(B) more than 200 km
(C) less than 300 km
(D) more than 300 km
97. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The area falling east of the Aravalli in Rajasthan State has higher road density than that of those falling west of the Aravalli.
Reason (R) : Relief plays an important effect in regional distribution of roads in the State of Rajasthan.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
98. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the regional distribution of rural settlements in Rajasthan State ?
(A) Rural settlements in the Rajasthan plain are small, compact and sparsely distributed due to limited water supply and
cultivable land
(B) In excessive arid areas having sand dunes, hamleted settlements are noticed near the water-bodies
(C) In eastern parts of Rajasthan large compact villages are a common sight
(D) Indira Gandhi Canal has, however, failed to encourage compact settlements similar to Punjab in northwestern parts of Rajasthan
99. The total number of urban settlements in Rajasthan State, according to 2001 Census has been—
(A) more than 300
(B) between 150 and 200
(C) more than 250
(D) between 200 and 250
100. Which one of the following is not the objective of forestry in Rajasthan State during the XI Five Year Plan ?
(A) To achieve 33•0 per cent tree cover in the State by 2016
(B) To check desertification and restore the ecological status of the Aravallis
(C) To conserve gene-pool and improve bio-diversity of flora and fauna
(D) To elicit people’s participation for institutionalization of Joint Forest Management (JFM)

Answers :

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (D)
91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (C)
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